Well what I’m trying to determine on your behalf is if you’re experiencing the same thing as the rest of us. You certainly think so, but I am not so sure one way or the other.
When I asked on the feeling/fact thread what you base your conclusions on, ie how you are confident you are right and Richard is wrong, you never answered. But it seems the answer is clear- you base it on this experience of what you call purity.
And on my journal thread when I asked how you can be experiencing the same thing but reach such different conclusions, you said ” I don’t have a good explanation for this.”.
But the most obvious explanation, of course, is that you’re experiencing something else. Different experience forms a different basis for a premise and therefore leads to different conclusions.
By asking you if feelings are also pure in this way, I was seeking to determine if it is the same thing. Because ‘me’ and ‘my’ feelings are certainly NOT pure in the same way pure intent is. Locally they are clearly not… and “globally” they don’t exist lol (they never come into ‘being’ by virtue of the feeler being in abeyance or entirely extirpated).
But you answered both yes and no so there’s nothing definitive.
I’m not interested in a debate back and forth. But rather to help elucidate whence the differences.
Now a possible edge in is that you said that feelings are NOT pure, “locally”, while presumably the purity obviously is.
Doesn’t this strike you then as feelings being of a different nature than the purity? And don’t you see how the actual world (as experienced in a PCE) is of the same quality as that purity (and not of the same quality as feelings?)
And if everything in the actual world is pure, and the purity you experience is pure, but feelings are not / the experience of feelings is not… … … then doesn’t it start to come together how one category might be said to actually exist while the other does not?